Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 08:56
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Ozempic has ‘very rare’ sight loss side effect, EU drugs regulator finds - politico.eu
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
How would you spank me if I had been sent home from a school camp because of my poor behavior?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?